Burndens Bogs Posted June 21, 2012 Share Posted June 21, 2012 If Ukraine had beaten us 1-0? Obviously Ukraine would have topped the group with 7 points,leaving us and France on 4 points, France scored 3 and conceded 3, we would have scored 4 and conceded 4 - so who would have qualified in 2nd spot? Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Traf Posted June 21, 2012 Share Posted June 21, 2012 France, because Platini's French. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
stevieb Posted June 21, 2012 Share Posted June 21, 2012 Goes to coefficient. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Traf Posted June 21, 2012 Share Posted June 21, 2012 Goes to coefficient. unless France are involved. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
frank_spencer Posted June 21, 2012 Share Posted June 21, 2012 Us cos we scored more. Unless Malcolm knows other wise. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
DazBob Posted June 21, 2012 Share Posted June 21, 2012 Goes to coefficient. Before goals scored? That's wank if correct. I thought it was head-to-head, g/d, g/s ... then coefficient. IMO though coefficient shouldn't even come into it. A toss of a coin would be fairer. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Burndens Bogs Posted June 21, 2012 Author Share Posted June 21, 2012 Before goals scored? That's wank if correct. I thought it was head-to-head, g/d, g/s ... then coefficient. IMO though coefficient shouldn't even come into it. A toss of a coin would be fairer. Wtf is coefficient? Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
DazBob Posted June 21, 2012 Share Posted June 21, 2012 Wtf is coefficient? It's a posh word for 'Ranking'. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
MalcolmW Posted June 21, 2012 Share Posted June 21, 2012 Before goals scored? That's wank if correct. I thought it was head-to-head, g/d, g/s ... then coefficient. IMO though coefficient shouldn't even come into it. A toss of a coin would be fairer. 0-1 England and France qualify. 1-0 Ukraine and England qualify. 1-1 England and France qualify. 2-1 Ukraine and England qualify. 3-1 Ukraine and France qualify. As France scored less goals in 3 matches than England did in their first 2 it was never going to go beyond goals scored. But if France had lost 4-2 to Sweden and England 2-1 to Ukraine, the tie between England and France would have been sorted on Fair Play coefficient within the tournament. If that didn't resolve it then lots would have been drawn (and even more written). 3-1 Ukraine and France qualify. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Traf Posted June 21, 2012 Share Posted June 21, 2012 lots would have been drawn (and even more written). A nice bit of dry humour: I like it. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
MalcolmW Posted June 21, 2012 Share Posted June 21, 2012 Actually UEFA ranking comes into it before Fair Play. Since there were no ties in the rankings FP would never apply (and nor would lots). England were ranked 5th and France 12th, so for a drawn head-to-head and identical goals for/against England would have qualified. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
QFPants Posted June 21, 2012 Share Posted June 21, 2012 Thought the coefficient was performance in last few tournaments, not even as straightforward as current Fifa ranking. Might be bolkocks though, sure I heard it mentioned somewhere Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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